Trying to pin it down: Perspective old or new on “works of the law” and the unrighteousness of Israel

And they were both righteous before God, walking blamelessly in all the commandments and statutes of the Lord.

If anyone else thinks he has reason for confidence in the flesh, I have more: circumcised on the eighth day, of the people of Israel, of the tribe of Benjamin, a Hebrew of Hebrews; as to the law, a Pharisee; as to zeal, a persecutor of the church; as to righteousness under the law, blameless.

Coming up with an explanation that covers both data points is challenging.  I think Doug Wilson pointed out that he got Wright to agree that Zacharias might describe Saul the Pharisee as something less than righteous.  That is a good point, and I can’t think of anything that has been said that solves it in easily memorable steps.

But I may be able to offer further clarity on the post I made yesterday (let me know if it adds clarity, obscurity, or if it was already too obscure to say that it is more so now).

As I see it Romans 1-3 goes something like this:

1. God is angry at sin and is punishing it by giving the world over to more sin.

2. Implied question: but you only means the Gentiles, right?

3. Not at all: Have you looked at all the things everyone sees Israel doing lately?

4. Implied question: but doesn’t the special standing that the Jews have give them protection from judgment on these matters?

5. Not at all: God has always saved and loved believing Gentiles and rejected unbelieving Jews.  Gentiles have even been in a position to judge these Jews.

6. So being Israel/being Jewish has never been a guarantee of righteous standing before God.  Both are alike under sin and the Law condemns Israel and therefore condemns the world.

Now, I think I got much of this from Wright.  And I think it works in the text.  No one denies that “the moral law” (violation of basic commands of the decalogue) is involved in provoking the wrath of God.  Nevertheless, “the works of the law” is mentioned in a context that implies it is not directly pointed to whether the Jewish leadership throughout Asia was widely engaged in witchcraft, but is pointed to whether, if that was the case, God would overlook it because they were Jewish.  By the works of the law no flesh shall be justified.

By the way, I left out part of the argument.

7. Just because God faithfully brought about salvation through the unfaithfulness of Israel does not mean Israel is any less guilty.

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